There is nothing in any of these documents referring to the “collective” anything. So, why in a series of documents proclaiming the “individual,” why would the Founding Fathers pick the second spot in the Bill of Rights to proclaim that gun ownership was a collective right of the government, especially when the Constitution commands the Federal Government to have a standing Army, one cannot have a standing Army without guns, now can one? Then for what reason would the Founding Fathers be redundant on this subject?

Only in a liberal mind can one read into a statement the exact opposite of what that statement says. The government is not all-powerful, it is the people who hold the power and the sovereignty of this Republic. Take another look at the Tenth Amendment sometime.

I could easily see them going for the “individual right” and the “rational basis” test instead of the “strict scrutiny” test.

That way, they get to tell you you have a right to bear arms, but don’t actually enact any meaningful limits on the government regulation of that right.

Constitutionally, the Court cannot completely resolve the gun control issue. It is limited to the case or controversy before it.

I hope I am in wrong but I think the individual gun rights crowd are going to be handed a devestating defeat.